Exam CRT-450: Salesforce Certified Platform Developer I (SU18),exam CRT-450 training materials and exam dumps
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NEW QUESTION: 1
A developer creates a method in an Apex class and needs to ensure that errors are handled
properly.What would the developer use? (There are three correct answers.)
A. A custom exception
B. ApexPages.addErrorMessage()
C. .addError()
D. A try/catch construct
E. Database.handleException()
Answer: A,C,D
NEW QUESTION: 2
A developer needs to join data received from an integration with an external system with
parent records in Salesforce. The data set does not contain the Salesforce IDs of the parent records,
but it does have a foreign key attribute that can be used to identify the parent.
Which action will allow the developer to relate records in the data model without knowing the
Salesforce ID?
A. Create and populate a custom field on the parent object marked as an External I
B. Create a custom field on the child object of type Foreign Key.
C. Create and populate a custom field on the parent object marked as Unique.
D. Create a custom field on the child object of type External Relationship.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION: 3
A developer has a unit test that is failing. To identify the issue, the developer copies the code
inside the test method and executes it via the Execute Anonymous Apex Tool. The code then
executes without failing. Why did the unit test failed, but not the Execute Anonymous?
A. The test method use a try/catch block
B. The test method has a syntax error in the code.
C. The test method calls an @future method.
D. The test method relies on existing data in the database
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION: 4
A developer wants to override a button using Visualforce on an object.
What is the requirement?
A. The standardController attribute must be set to the object.
B. The object record must be instantiated in a controller or extension.
C. The action attribute must be set to a controller method.
D. The controller or extension must have a PageReference method.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION: 5
The Sales Management team hires a new intern. The intern is not allowed to view
Opportunities, but needs to see the Most Recent Closed Date of all child Opportunities when viewing
an Account record. What would a developer do to meet this requirement?
A. Create a trigger on the Account object that queries the Close Date of the most recent
Opportunities.
B. Create a formula field on the Account object that performs a MAX on the Opportunity Close Date
field.
C. Create a roll-up summary field on the Account object that performs a MAX on the Opportunity
Close Date field.
D. Create a Workflow rule on the Opportunity object that updates a field on the parent Account.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 6
When would a developer use a custom controller instead of a controller extension? Choose 2
answers:
A. When a Visualforce page needs to add new actions to a standard controller.
B. When a Visualforce page needs to replace the functionality of a standard controller.
C. When a Visualforce page does not reference a single primary object.
D. When a Visualforce page should not enforce permissions or field-level security.
Answer: C,D
NEW QUESTION: 7
An sObject named Application_c has a lookup relationship to another sObject named
Position_c. Both Application _c and Position_c have a picklist field named Status_c.When the
Status_c field on Position_c is updated, the Status_c field on Application_c needs to be populated
automatically with the same value, and execute a workflow rule on Application_c.How can a
developer accomplish this?
A. By configuring a cross-object field update with a workflow.
B. By changing Application_c.Status_c into a formula field.
C. By using an Apex trigger with a DML operation.
D. By changing Application_c.Status_c into a roll -up summary field.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 8
A developer is creating an application to track engines and their parts. An individual part can
be used in different types of engines.What data model should be used to track the data and to
prevent orphan records?
A. Create a master-detail relationship to represent the one-to-many model of engines to parts.
B. Create a junction object to relate many engines to many parts through a master-detail relationshi
p
C. Create a junction object to relate many engines to many parts through a lookup relationship
D. Create a lookup relationship to represent how each part relates to the parent engine object.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION: 9
Which two number expression evaluate correctly? Choose 2 answers
A. Decimal D = 3.14159;
B. Long I = 3.14159;
C. Integer I = 3.14159;
D. Double D =3.14159;
Answer: A,D
NEW QUESTION: 10
A company wants a recruiting app that models candidates and interviews; displays the total
number of interviews on each candidate record; and defines security on interview records that is
independent from the security on candidate records. What would a developer do to accomplish this
task? Choose 2 answers
A. Create a master -detail relationship between the Candidate and Interview objects.
B. Create a trigger on the Interview object that updates a field on the Candidate object.
C. Create a lookup relationship between the Candidate and Interview objects.
D. Create a roll -up summary field on the Candidate object that counts Interview records.
Answer: B,C
NEW QUESTION: 11
What is a capability of the Force.com IDE? Choose 2 answers
A. Roll back deployments.
B. Download debug logs.
C. Edit metadata components.
D. Run Apex tests.
Answer: C,D
NEW QUESTION: 12
An org has different Apex Classes that provide Account -related functionality.After a new
validation rule is added to the object, many of the test methods fail.What can be done to resolve the
failures and reduce the number of code changes needed for future validation rules?Choose 2
answers:
A. Create a method that performs a callout for a valid Account record, and call this method from
within test methods.
B. Create a method that loads valid Account records from a Static Resource, and call this method
within test methods.
C. Create a method that creates valid Account records, and call this method from within test
methods.
D. Create a method that queries for valid Account records, and call this method from within test
methods.
Answer: B,C
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Exam 300-175: Implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing, exam 300-175 training materails and reference information
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NEW QUESTION: 1
Which statement is true regarding backup operations in Cisco UCS Manager?
A. Scheduled backups are not available.
B. A user can perform incremental backups of a system configuration.
C. Each backup destination can have multiple backup operations.
D. Passwords and other sensitive information are encrypted in full state backups.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION: 2
Which two policies can be configured in a port profile for VM-FEX high-performance mode?
(Choose two.)
A. QoS policy
B. adapter policy
C. network control policy
D. BIOS policy
E. vNIC connection policy
Answer: A,B
NEW QUESTION: 3
You have a Cisco FabricPath network. You must implement vPC+ for a downstream switch.
Which three actions should you perform? (Choose three.)
A. Configure the upstream switch to use PAgP on EtherChannel.
B. Configure the switch ID on the peer switches.
C. Establish a peer link between the peer switches.
D. Configure the downstream switch to use PAgP on EtherChannel.
E. Connect the downstream switch to a 10-Gb port.
F. Configure a peer keepalive between the peer switches.
Answer: B,C,D
NEW QUESTION: 4
Which statement about high-availability clusters for Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects is true?
A. The management plane is active/standby.
B. The cluster requires a minimum of two IP addresses.
C. The data plane is active/standby.
D. Peers in a cluster must connect to each other by using two 10-Gbps links.
Answer: A
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/20/b_UCSM_G
UI_Configura
NEW QUESTION: 5
An admin wants to make sure that for each VLAN added to a vNIC, a static MAC address entry
is added to the fabric interconnect. Which setting within Cisco UCS Manager accomplishes this task?
A. The MAC Register Mode in the network control policy is set to Only Native VLAN.
B. The MAC Register Mode in the LAN connectivity policy is set to All Host VLANs.
C. The MAC Register Mode in the network control policy is set to All Host VLANs.
D. The MAC Register Mode in the link protocol policy is set to Only Native VLAN.
E. The MAC Register Mode in the LAN connectivity policy is set to Only Native VLAN.
F. The MAC Register Mode in the link protocol policy is set to All Host VLANs.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 6
Which two are true concerning the role-based access control specifics of a Cisco Unified
Computing System?
(Choose two.)
A. All roles include read access to all configuration settings in the Cisco Unified Computing System
domain.
B. If a user maintains a local user account and a remote user account simultaneously, the roles that
are defined in the local user account override those that are maintained in the remote user account.
C. A user that is assigned one or more roles will be allowed the privileges that are consistent across
all of the assigned roles.
D. By default, user accounts expire after 90 days; a warning message will be generated 10 days prior
to expiration.
E. A locally authenticated user account is any user account that is authenticated through LDAP,
RADIUS, or TACACS+.
F. Disabled local user accounts are deleted from the database.
Answer: A,B
NEW QUESTION: 7
Scenario
In this scenario, you will refer to screenshots about Cisco UCS B-Series servers and UCS Manager.
Instructions
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task. Be sure to answer all four questions before
selecting the Next button.
Refer to the Exhibit 2 screenshot of the NX-OS shell CLI in UCS Manager. What LAN policy correlates
with the line "pinning server pinning-failure link-down"?
A. Link Protocol
B. Flow Control
C. Dynamic vNIC Connection
D. Network Control
Answer: D
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/ucs-5100-seriesblade-
server-chassis/1160
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-
2/b_UCSM_GUI_Configura
NEW QUESTION: 8
You are implementing a UCS B-Series environment for a customer with both bare-metal and
virtualized servers. The bare-metal servers require two vNICs and two vHBAs. Administrators of
virtualized servers will be utilizing VN-Link technology. Which adapter should be recommended?
A. Cisco UCS M81KR
B. Cisco UCS P81E
C. Cisco UCS M72KR-Q
D. Cisco UCS M71KR-E
E. Cisco UCS M51KR-B
Answer: A
Explanation
M81KR (supports many adapters and VN-LINK)
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-b-series-blade-
servers/data_she M72KR-Q (supports only one adapter, does not support VN-LINK)
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-b-series-blade-
servers/data_sheet_c78-623738.html M71KR-E (supports only one adapter, does not support VN-
LINK)
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-b-series-blade-
servers/data_sheet_c78-703582.html P81E (supports many adapters, does not support VN-LINK)
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/ collateral/servers -unified-computing/ucs-c-series-rack-
servers/ data_sheet_c78-558230.html M51KR-B (this is not a converged network adapter CNA, and
does not support vHBAs)
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-b-series-
blade-servers/spec_sheet_c17-644236.pdf
NEW QUESTION: 9
Which scheduling option sets the number of tasks that can be run?
A. max changes
B. max number of concurrent tasks
C. max number of tasks
D. max configuration requests
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 10
Which protocol is not supported for Cisco UCS backups and imports?
A. TFTP
B. SCP
C. SFTP
D. FTP
E. HTTP
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION: 11
Open the windows by clicking on the minimized at the bottom of the viewing area. Windows
can be minimized by clicking on the [X], repositioned by dragging the title bar, and resized by using
the handle at the lower right corner to customize the viewing area.
If you are required to access the devices to complete this scenario, the mouse cursor will use a hand
symbol when moved over device icons. Clicking the icon will open a device terminal so you can
interact with the hardware.
Open the Questions window and begin by clicking a question number. When you have completed
answering all questions, click Done to continue.
Scenario
Use your UCS knowledge on Adapter errors .............................................configurations.
Current adapter status is?
A. Down
B. Operable
C. Unknown
D. Inoperable
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION: 12
Which two protocols are accepted by the Cisco UCS Manager XML API? (Choose two.)
A. XMTP
B. HTTPS
C. HTTP
D. SNMP
E. SMASH
Answer: B,C
Explanation
The Cisco UCS Manager XML API is a programmatic interface to Cisco Unified Computing System
(UCS).
The API accepts XML documents through HTTP or HTTPS. Developers can use any programming
language to generate XML documents that contain the API methods Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/api/b_ucs_api_book/b_ucs_api
_book_chapter_
NEW QUESTION: 13
Which item describes the failure scenario called a "split-brain" in the Cisco Unified Computing
System?
A. failure of a Cisco Unified Computing System Chassis Management Controller
B. failure of a Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect
C. failure of a Cisco Unified Computing System I/O module
D. failure of the Cisco Unified Computing System L1-L2 network
E. failure of a Cisco Unified Computing System Chassis Management Switch
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION: 14
Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement about the ESXi installation on a Cisco UCS C-Series server is true?
A. TheESXi is installed on a local drive and the SATA drive is selected as the first boot option
B. During the ESXi installation process, on a local RAID you must select the local RAID group
C. During the ESXi installation process, you must select the location of the ESXi image file.
D. TheESXi is installed on a local RAID array and the local RAID group is selected as the first boot
option
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION: 15
Which statement about the purpose of a storage connection policy in Cisco UCS Manager is
true?
A. It defines the number of storage connections that are allowed to connect to the fabric
interconnects.
B. It sets a minimum baseline of requirements for when storage devices connect to the fabric
interconnects.
C. It sets a minimum baseline of requirements for when vHBAs are configured in a service profile.
D. It defines how zoning is configured for initiators and targets on the fabric interconnect.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION: 16
To provide stronger authentication for Cisco UCS manager, You are installing a third-party
certificate from a trusted point. Which format must the certificate be in?
A. PEM
B. CRT
C. DER
D. CER (x.509)
Answer: D
Explanation
Trusted Points
To provide stronger authentication for Cisco UCS Manager, you can obtain and install a third-party
certificate from a trusted source, or trusted point, that affirms the identity of your device. The third-
party certificate is signed by the issuing trusted point, which can be a root certificate authority (CA) or
an intermediate CA or trust anchor that is part of a trust chain that leads to a root CA. To obtain a
new certificate, you must generate a certificate request through Cisco UCS Manager and submit the
request to a trusted point.
Important:
The certificate must be in Base64 encoded X.509 (CER) format.
NEW QUESTION: 17
An administrator is required to configure a policy in Cisco UCS to schedule backups.
Which two backup types can be scheduled? (Choose two.)
A. all configuration
B. system configuration
C. logical configuration
D. import configuration
E. full state
Answer: A,E
Explanation
You can configure policies in Cisco UCS to schedule the following types of backups:
Full state
All configuration
You cannot schedule any other type of backup.
Full State Backup Policy
All Configuration Export Policy
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-
1/b_UCSM_GUI_Configu
NEW QUESTION: 18
In Cisco UCS Manager you must provide a user with the ability to manage alarms, alarm
policies, logs, and Smart Call Home. The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned
to the user. Which role must you assign?
A. Administrator
B. Operations
C. AAA Administrator
D. Network Administrator
Answer: B
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Exam 300-180: Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Infrastructure, exam 300-180 study guide materiasl
Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Infrastructure
What you’ll learn ?
The Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Infrastructure helps you prepare for the Cisco CCNP Data Center certification and for professional-level data center roles. You will master the professional-level skills and technologies needed to configure and troubleshoot Cisco data center infrastructure, including LAN and SAN protocols, network virtualization, Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure, and compute platforms.
IT professionals with Cisco CCNP Data Center training and certification are uniquely qualified for professional-level or higher roles in enterprise-class data center environments. The Cisco CCNP certification equips you with skills in a broad range of technologies and industry best practices to help you succeed in these in-demand roles.
Introducrton:
There are 218 questions and answers in total.
How you’ll benefit
We will help you:
Identify, troubleshoot, and fix problems in Cisco data center infrastructure, including issues with networking, compute, virtualization, storage, and security
Master the practical and theoretical knowledge necessary to troubleshoot LANs, SANs, Cisco Unified Fabric, Cisco Unified Computing System™ (Cisco UCS™), and Cisco ACI
Prepare for the Cisco CCNP Data Center certification through a combination of lessons and practice that enables you to validate your skills
Qualify for professional-level job roles in the high-demand area of enterprise-class data center environments
Who should enroll
IT professionals with five to eight years of experience in these roles:
Data center administrator
Data center engineer
Network administrator
Network engineer
System administrator
Systems engineer
Network designer
Consulting systems engineer
Technical solutions architect
Cisco integrator or partner
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NEW QUESTION: 1
You see incoming updates in the logs from the hypervisor. But the State Of the Cisco APIC fails
to change Which option is a possible cause Of the issue?
A. The APIC is in a minority state
B. No uplinks are configured on the Cisco AVS.
C. The VMM credentials are incorrect.
D. VMM is not integrated properly
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 2
A customer reports that they are missing vPC peer link redundancy between two Cisco Nexus
5548UP switches. The interfaces on both switches are configured and cabled correctly. The interface
status is up/down on switch 1 and up/up on switch 2, Which two steps should be taken to isolate the
root cause? (Choose two.)
A. ask the customer if the link was ever functional
B. determine whether the fiber-optic cable manufacturer is valid under the interoperability matrix
C. Swap the ends of the fiber-optic cable
D. swap the transceivers between the two interfaces
E. determine Whether the fiber-optic cable type (single mode or multimode) matches the X2
modules
Answer: C,D
NEW QUESTION: 3
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the cause of the ISSU failure when using the command show system internal csm global info?
A. The SSN feature is not enabled on both switches.
B. The reference count is less than 1 due to a lack of successful config-sync.
C. An Administrator is logged in on another session and has a lock of the session data base to prevent
ISSU.
D. The command conf-t is holding a lock and not released it.
E. It cannot be determined from the output.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION: 4
Refer to the exhibit.
You see the fault when configuring a global ID pool on Cisco UCS Central. Which scenario could cause
the issue?
A. The same ID is defined in Cisco UCS Central and Cisco UCS Manager.
B. The same IP address is configured in two registered domains.
C. The same ID is assigned to the service profiles in two registered domains.
D. Global service profiles consume IDs from the blocks that have an assigned ID range qualifier
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 5
It has been determined that unknown unicast, multicast, and broadcast traffic is not correctly being
switched through either Nexus 7010 switch. Which statement best describes the cause of this issue?
A. The default VLAN is inactive.
B. No VLANs are allowed across the vPC peer link.
C. The MST STP is not enabled on either switch.
D. VTP is not configured to handle this type of traffic.
Answer: C
Explanation
The MST STP is not enabled on either switch
From both switches the "show spanning-tree mst" command shows that the switch is not in MST
mode.
NEW QUESTION: 6
You install a new DIMM in a Cisco UCS C-Series standalone rack server and that DIMM is not
recognized by the server. What actions do you take to troubleshoot the problem? (Choose two)
A. Remove and dispose of the bad DIMM.
B. Return the DIMM for a new replacement.
C. Remove an old DIMM from the blue memory slot and install the new DIMM there.
D. Verify that the DIMM has been qualified to work on Cisco UCS servers.
E. Verify that the DIMM is in a slot that supports an active CPU.
Answer: A,D
NEW QUESTION: 7
Refer to the exhibit. What does the output in the Scope column indicate?
A. the VRF segment to which the rule applies
B. the EPG to which the rule apples
C. the VRF tenant to which the rule applies
D. the fabric zone to which the rule applies
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION: 8
On a Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch, the VFC is stuck in the initializing state. Which QoS
statements must be configured for FCoE to operate?
A. system qos
service-policy type qos input default-in-policy
service-policy type queuing input default-in-policy
service-policy type queuing output fcoe-default-out-policy
service-policy type network-qos fcoe-default-nq-policy
B. system qos
service-policy type qos input fcoe-default-in-policy
service-policy type queuing input fcoe-default-in-policy
service-policy type queuing output fcoe-default-out-policy
service-policy type network-qos fcoe-default-nq-policy
C. system qos
service-policy type qos input default-in-policy
service-policy type queuing input default-in-policy
service-policy type queuing output default-out-policy
service-policy type network-qos default-nq-policy
D. system qos
service-policy type qos input fcoe-default-in-policy
service-policy type queuing input fcoe-default-in-policy
service-policy type qos input default-in-policy
service-policy type network-qos default-nq-policy
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION: 9
Which two protocols are important for DCBX to enable the 'no drop' classes that are needed
for lossless transmission? (Choose Two.)
A. FIP
B. LLDP
C. ETS
D. PFC
E. LACP
Answer: C,D
NEW QUESTION: 10
Refer to the exhibit. You configure a vPC between two Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switches but
the peer link will not come up. What is the problem?
A. The role priority must be the same.
B. The vPC domain numbers must be different.
C. The system priority must be the same.
D. The configuration is correct. The problem lies elsewhere.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 11
Refer to the exhibit.
You have a server that fails to boot *which option is a possible cause of the issue?
A. an incorrect boot policy
B. incorrect LUN masking on the Storage array
C. incorrect zoning
D. an incorrect FC/FCoE target port in the SAN
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION: 12
Which configuration command is critical in order for OTV edge devices to maintain an overlay
adjacency with their local peers in a multihomed site via the join interfaces across the Layer 3
network domain?
A. otv site-vlan <vlan-id>
B. otv site-identifier <id>
C. otv extend-vlan <vlan.range>
D. otv use-adjacency-server <ip address> unicast-only
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION: 13
Refer to the exhibit.
The output displays a failed SFP validation.
A. The speed needs to be changed to 10000,
B. The SFP is not a valid Cisco SFP
C. The speed needs to be changed to 1000
D. The fiber is not connected to the SFP
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION: 14
Which statement is true regarding FHRP considerations for an OTV network?
A. FHRP should be limited to only the internal OTV interfaces.
B. VRRP is recommended over HSRP or GLBP.
C. Using an AED eliminates the need for FHRP.
D. Filtering FHRP across the OTV network is recommended to avoid a suboptimal path due to the
election of a single default gateway.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION: 15
Refer to the exhibit.
You are configuring a Cisco APIC for access. Which task is being performed in the exhibit?
A. creating the LDAP provider group
B. creating the LDAP logjn domain
C. configuring APIC management EpG
D. creating the LDAP provider
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION: 16
Which two options would cause switch fabrics not to merge? (Choose two.)
A. The switches have different assigned VSANs on the connecting pons.
B. The static domain ID does not override the dynamic ID
C. The switches have different assigned VLANs on the connecting ports.
D. The election of the static domain is only determined by the WWNs of the two switches,
E. The switches do not have at least one assigned domain ID in common.
Answer: A,E
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Exam CCSP: Certified Cloud Security Professional, exam CCSP study materials and exam dumps
Become a CCSP – Certified Cloud Security Professional
Earning the globally recognized CCSP cloud security certification is a proven way to build your career and better secure critical assets in the cloud.
The CCSP shows you have the advanced technical skills and knowledge to design, manage and secure data, applications and infrastructure in the cloud using best practices, policies and procedures established by the cybersecurity experts at (ISC)².
Prove your skills, advance your career, and gain support from a community of cybersecurity leaders here to help you throughout your professional journey.
Who Earns The CCSP?
The CCSP is ideal for IT and information security leaders responsible for applying best practices to cloud security architecture, design, operations and service orchestration, including those in the following positions:
Enterprise Architect
Security Administrator
Systems Engineer
Security Architect
Security Consultant
Security Engineer
Security Manager
Systems Architect
Is The CCSP Right For You?
The CCSP isn’t the best IT certification option for everyone. Before you start down your certification path, make sure you aren’t missing an opportunity to pursue a credential more aligned with your immediate career goals.
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NEW QUESTION: 1
Which of the following storage types are used with an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
solution?
Response:
A. Volume and block
B. Structured and object
C. Volume and object
D. Unstructured and ephemeral
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 2
Which of the following is not a security concern related to archiving data for long-term
storage?
Response:
A. Media the data resides on
B. Underground depth of the storage facility
C. Long-term storage of the related cryptographic keys
D. Format of the data
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION: 3
In general, a cloud BCDR solution will be _________ than a physical solution.
Response:
A. More difficult to engineer
B. Slower
C. Less expensive
D. Larger
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 4
Digital rights management (DRM) solutions (sometimes referred to as information rights
management, or IRM) often protect unauthorized distribution of what type of intellectual property?
Response:
A. Copyright
B. Trademarks
C. Personally identifiable information (PII)
D. Patents
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION: 5
TLS uses ___________ to authenticate a connection and create a shared secret for the
duration of the session.
A. X.509 certificates
B. 802.11X
C. SAML 2.0
D. The Diffie-Hellman process
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION: 6
When a data center is configured such that the backs of the devices face each other and the
ambient temperature in the work area is cool, it is called ___________.
Response:
A. Hot aisle containment
B. Thermo-optimized
C. HVAC modulated
D. Cold aisle containment
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION: 7
All of the following methods can be used to attenuate the harm caused by escalation of
privilege except:
Response:
A. The use of automated analysis tools such as SIM, SIEM, and SEM solutions
B. Extensive access control and authentication tools and techniques
C. Analysis and review of all log data by trained, skilled personnel on a frequent basis
D. Periodic and effective use of cryptographic sanitization tools
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION: 8
SOX was enacted because of which of the following?
Response:
A. Poor BOD oversight
B. Poor financial controls
C. All of the above
D. Lack of independent audits
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 9
Security best practices in a virtualized network environment would include which of the
following?
Response:
A. Running iSCSI traffic unencrypted in order to have it observed and monitored by NIDS
B. Using distinct ports and port groups for various VLANs on a virtual switch rather than running
them through the same port
C. Adding HIDS to all virtual guests
D. Hardening all outward-facing firewalls in order to make them resistant to attack
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION: 10
Proper ________ need to be assigned to each data classification/category.
Response:
A. Metadata
B. Dollar values
C. Policies
D. Security controls
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION: 11
What can tokenization be used for?
Response:
A. Giving management oversight to e-commerce functions
B. Encryption
C. Compliance with PCI DSS
D. Enhancing the user experience
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 12
You are the security manager of a small firm that has just purchased a DLP solution to
implement in your cloud-based production environment.
In order to get truly holistic coverage of your environment, you should be sure to include
__________ as a step in the deployment process.
Response:
A. Getting signed user agreements from all users
B. All of your customers to install the tool
C. Adoption of the tool in all routers between your users and the cloud provider
D. Installation of the solution on all assets in the cloud data center
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION: 13
Which of the following would probably best aid an organization in deciding whether to
migrate from a legacy environment to a particular cloud provider?
Response:
A. SLA satisfaction surveys from other (current and past) cloud customers
B. The cost/benefit measure of closing the organization's relocation site (hot site/warm site) and
using the cloud for disaster recovery instead
C. Cloud provider offers to provide engineering assistance during the migration
D. Rate sheets comparing a cloud provider to other cloud providers
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION: 14
All of the following are terms used to described the practice of obscuring original raw data so
that only a portion is displayed for operational purposes, except:
Response:
A. Masking
B. Tokenization
C. Obfuscation
D. Data discovery
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION: 15
You are a consultant performing an external security review on a large manufacturing firm.
You determine that its newest assembly plant, which cost $24 million, could be completely destroyed
by a fire but that a fire suppression system could effectively protect the plant.
The fire suppression system costs $15 million. An insurance policy that would cover the full
replacement cost of the plant costs $1 million per month.
In order to establish the true annualized loss expectancy (ALE), you would need all of the following
information except ____________.
Response:
A. The amount of revenue generated by the plant
B. The length of time it would take to rebuild the plant
C. The rate at which the plant generates revenue
D. The amount of product the plant creates
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION: 16
Cloud environments pose many unique challenges for a data custodian to properly adhere to
policies and the use of data. What poses the biggest challenge for a data custodian with a PaaS
implementation, over and above the same concerns with IaaS?
Response:
A. Knowledge of systems
B. Data classification rules
C. Access to systems
D. Contractual requirements
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION: 17
Bob is staging an attack against Alice's website. He is able to embed a link on her site that will
execute malicious code on a visitor's machine, if the visitor clicks on the link. This is an example of
which type of attack?
Response:
A. Insecure cryptographic storage
B. Cross-site scripting
C. Broken authentication/session management
D. Security misconfiguration
Answer: B
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Exam NSE4_FGT-6.0: Fortinet NSE 4 - FortiOS 6.0, exam NSE4_FGT-6.0 learning materials
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NEW QUESTION: 1
Which of the following statements about NTLM authentication are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Multi-domain environments require DC agents on every domain controller.
B. It is useful when users log in to DCs that are not monitored by a collector agent.
C. It takes over as the primary authentication method when configured alongside FSSO.
D. NTLM-enabled web browsers are required.
Answer: B,D
NEW QUESTION: 2
Examine the IPS sensor and DoS policy configuration shown in the exhibit, then answer the
question below.
When detecting attacks, which anomaly, signature, or filter will FortiGate evaluate first?
A. SMTP.Login.Brute.Force
B. Location: server Protocol: SMTP
C. ip_src_session
D. IMAP.Login.brute.Force
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION: 3
You are configuring the root FortiGate to implement the security fabric. You are configuring
port 10 to communicate with a downstream FartiGate. View the default Edit InterFace in the exhibit
below;
When configuring the rod FortiGate to communicate with a downstream FortiGate which settings are
required to be configured? (Choose two)
A. Role Security Fabric.
B. Device Detection enabled.
C. IP/Network Mask.
D. Administrative Access FortiTelemetrT
Answer: A,C
NEW QUESTION: 4
Which statement about the IP authentication header (AH) used by IPsec is true?
A. AH provides data integrity but no encryption.
B. AH does not provide any data integrity or encryption.
C. AH does not support perfect forward secrecy.
D. AH provides strong data integrity but weak encryption.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION: 5
Refer to the following exhibit.
Why is FortiGate not blocking the test file over FTP download?
A. FortiGate needs to be operating in flow-based inspection mode in order to scan FTP traffic.
B. The FortiSandbox signature database is required to successfully scan FTP traffic.
C. Deep-inspection must be enabled for FortiGate to fully scan FTP traffic.
D. The proxy options profile needs to scan FTP traffic on a non-standard port.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION: 6
If the Issuer and Subject values are the same in a digital certificate, which type of entity was
the certificate issued to?
A. A person
B. A CRL.
C. A subordinate CA
D. A root CA
Answer: A
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