Exam 400-101: CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam v5.1, exam 400-101 study guide materials and exam torrent
Description:
The "CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam v5.1" certification exam validates that the candidate knows the necessary tools, processes and basics for creating orchestration processes using Java technology. This certification proves that the candidate has an overall understanding and in‐depth technical skills to participate as a member of a project team in a mentored role. This certification exam is recommended as an entry level qualification.
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Please be aware that the professional- level certification also requires several years of practical on-the-job experience and addresses real-life scenarios.
For more information refer to :
2019 400-101 Test Simulates & 400-101 Training Materials & 400-101 Key Content
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NEW QUESTION: 1
Which two statements correctly describe IGMP filtering? (Choose two)
A. It can designate a port as a multicast host port instead of a multicast router port
B. It filters IGMP membership reports and queries
C. It forwards IGMP reports to the upstream multicast router to support source-base filtering
D. It controls the way in which multicast traffic can access a port
E. It requires IGMP snooping to be enabled
F. It enables a device to function as a multicast endpoint
Answer: B,E
NEW QUESTION: 2
Refer to the exhibit.
If a Layer 3 switch running OSPF in a VRF- lite configuration reports this error, which action can you
take to correct the problem?
A. Set mls cef maximum-routes in the global configuration
B. Upgrade the Layer 3 switch to a model that can support more routes.
C. Add the vri-lite capability to the OSPF configuration.
D. Configure the control plane with a larger memory allocation to support the Cisco Express
Forwarding Information Base.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION: 3
Which protocol allows connections made by an NBMA network to dynamically learn
connected addresses?
A. NHRP
B. HDLC
C. PPP
D. POP
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 4
What is a requirement for BFD static route support?
A. All routers that will carry traffic must be the same model.
B. CEF must be configured on all routers that will carry traffic.
C. All routers that will carry traffic must have the same software version.
D. BFD must be configured on all Ethernet, virtual-template, and dialer interfaces that will carry
traffic.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION: 5
Drag and drop each IPv6 neighbor discovery message type on the left to the corresponding
description on the right.
Answer:
NEW QUESTION: 6
Which two options are func1ions of the master controller in PfR? (Choose two.)
A. It enforces the traffic path.
B. It provides network visibility.
C. It performs traffic inspection.
D. It applies the policy.
E. It learns the traffic path.
Answer: D,E
NEW QUESTION: 7
Which three criteria are used for stackwise election of a master switch?
A. highest MAC address
B. longest uptime
C. Vl.AN revision number
D. I0S version number
E. lowest MAC address
F. user-selected priority
Answer: B,E,F
NEW QUESTION: 8
What is the correct order of the VSS initialization process? Drag and drop the actions on the
left to the correct initialization step on the right.
Answer:
Explanation
NEW QUESTION: 9
Which two parameters need to be the same for two routers to form an EIGRP
neighbofship.(Choose two)
A. Hello and Dead Timers
B. K-Values
C. AS number
D. Network type
E. Subnet Mask
Answer: B,C
NEW QUESTION: 10
Which command can you enter to configure a Cisco router running OSPF to propagate the
static default route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.31.15.1 within the OSPF process?
A. Redistribute static
B. Redistribute static metric 1 subnets
C. Redistribute static subnets
D. Default-information originate
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION: 11
How does Control Plane Policing protect the route processor?
A. It treats the route processor as a separate entity within MQC.
B. It disables access to the control plane during an attack.
C. It marks non-essential traffic and moves it to the Scavenger class.
D. It dynamically enables ingress ACLs on selected interfaces.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION: 12
Refer to the exhibit.
Router A is connected as BGP neighbor to routers B and C.
Which path does router A use to get to AS 65010?
A. will load balance because both routes have the same Med value.
B. through router B because the default local preference is 500 and higher than router
C. through router C because it has a higher local preference.
D. through router B because ii has the shortest AS path.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 13
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the PHB class on this flow?
A. CS4
B. AF21
C. EF
D. none
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION: 14
Drag each routing protocol on the left to the matching statement on the right Select and Place:
Answer:
Explanation
NEW QUESTION: 15
Which two statements about MSDP are true? (Choose two)
A. It requires multicast receivers to be in the same domain.
B. It requires multicast sources to be in the same domain.
C. It uses loopback interfaces for anycast RP addresses.
D. It uses UDP to establish peering sessions.
E. All MSDP domains on a given network can share a common RP.
F. It uses 32-bit anycast RP addresses.
Answer: B,E
NEW QUESTION: 16
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two conclusions can you draw from this output? (Choose two.)
A. The device at 192.168.5.119 is on the same subnet as the next hop for the device at 10.9.132.254
B. The device at the 192.168.5.119 routing table has an ARP entry for the device at 10.9.132.254
C. The device that produced the output uses the same interface to send and receive traffic to and
from the device at 10.9.132.254
D. The packet was source-routed
E. The device that produced the output uses different interfaces to send and receive traffic to and
from the device at 10.9.132.254
Answer: A,C
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Exam AWS-DevOps: AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional, exam AWS-DevOps training materials and reference information
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NEW QUESTION: 1
Your public website uses a load balancer and an Auto Scalinggroup in a virtual private cloud.
Your chief security officer has asked you to set up a monitoring system that quickly detects and alerts
your team when a large sudden traffic increase occurs. How should you set this up?
A. Setup an Amazon CloudWatch alarm for the Elastic Load Balancing Networkln metricand then use
Amazon SNS to alert your team.
B. Usean Amazon EMR job to run every thirty minutes, analyze the Elastic LoadBalancing access logs
in a batch manner to detect a sharp increase in trafficand then use the Amazon Simple Email Service
to alert your team.
C. Setup a cron job to actively monitor the AWS CloudTrail logs for increased trafficand use Amazon
SNS to alert your team.
D. Usean Amazon EMR job to run every thirty minutes analyze the CloudWatch logs fromyour
application Amazon EC2 instances in a batch manner to detect a sharpincrease in traffic and then use
the Amazon SNS SMS notification to alert yourteam
E. Setup an Amazon CloudWatch alarm for the Amazon EC2 Networkln metric for the AutoScaling
group and then use Amazon SNS to alert your team.
Answer: E
Explanation
The below snapshot from the AWS documentation gives details on the Networkln metric.
NEW QUESTION: 2
What is required to achieve gigabit network throughput on EC2? You already selected cluster-
compute, 10GB instances with enhanced networking, and your workload is already network-bound,
but you are not seeing 10 gigabit speeds.
A. Enable biplex networking on your servers, so packets are non-blocking in both directions and
there's no switching overhead.
B. Select PIOPS for your drives and mount several, so you can provision sufficient disk throughput.
C. Use a placement group for your instances so the instances are physically near each other in the
same Availability Zone.
D. Ensure the instances are in different VPCs so you don't saturate the Internet Gateway on any one
VPC.
Answer: C
Explanation
A placement group is a logical grouping of instances within a single Availability Zone. Placement
groups are recommended for applications that benefit from low network latency, high network
throughput, or both. To provide the lowest latency, and the highest packet-per-second network
performance for your placement group, choose an instance type that supports enhanced networking.
For more information on Placement Groups, please visit the below URL:
* http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSCC2/latest/UserGuide/placement-groups.html
NEW QUESTION: 3
Which of the following is not a supported platform for the Elastic beanstalk service
A. AngularJS
B. PHP
C. Java
D. .Net
Answer: A
Explanation
For more information on Elastic beanstalk, please visit the below URL:
* http://docs.aws.amazon.com/elasticbeanstalk/latest/dg/concepts.platforms.html
NEW QUESTION: 4
For AWS Auto Scaling, what is the first transition state an instance enters after leaving steady
state when scaling in due to health check failure or decreased load?
A. EnteringStandby
B. Terminating:Wait
C. Detaching
D. Terminating
Answer: D
Explanation
The below diagram shows the Lifecycle policy. When the scale-in happens, the first action is the
Terminating action.
For more information on Autoscaling Lifecycle, please refer to the below link:
* http://docs.aws.amazon.com/autoscaling/latest/userguide/AutoScaingGroupLifecycle.html
NEW QUESTION: 5
You have a number of Cloudformation stacks in your IT organization. Which of the following
commands will help see all the cloudformation stacks which have a completed status?
A. stacks-complete
B. describe-stacks
C. list-templates
D. list-stacks
Answer: D
Explanation
The following is the description of the list-stacks command
Returns the summary information for stacks whose status matches the specified StackStatusFilter.
Summary information for stacks that have been deleted is kept for 90 days after the stack is deleted.
If no stack-status-filter is specified, summary information for all stacks is returned (including existing
stacks and stacks that have been deleted).
For more information on the list-stacks command please visit the below link
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/cli/latest/reference/cloudformation/list-stacks.html
NEW QUESTION: 6
You recently encountered a major bug in your web application during a deployment cycle.
During this failed deployment, it took the team four hours to roll back to a previously working state,
which left customers with a poor user experience. During the post-mortem, you team discussed the
need to provide a quicker, more robust way to roll back failed deployments. You currently run your
web application on Amazon EC2 and use Elastic Load Balancingforyour load balancing needs.
Which technique should you use to solve this problem?
A. UsingElastic BeanStalk redeploy your web application and use the Elastic BeanStalkAPI to trigger a
FailedDeployment API call to initiate a rollback to theprevious version.
B. Createdeployable versioned bundles of your application. Store the bundle on AmazonS3. Use an
AWS OpsWorks stack to redeploy your web application and use AWSOpsWorks application
versioningto initiate a rollback during failures.
C. Createdeployable versioned bundles of your application. Store the bundle on AmazonS3. Re-
deploy your web application on Elastic Beanstalk and enable the ElasticBeanstalk auto -
rollbackfeature tied to Cloud Watch metrics that definefailure.
D. Usean AWS OpsWorks stack to re-deploy your web application and use AWS
OpsWorksDeploymentCommand to initiate a rollback during failures.
Answer: D
Explanation
The AWS Documentation mentions the following
AWS DeploymentCommand has a rollback option in it. Following commands are available for apps to
use:
deploy: Deploy App.
Ruby on Rails apps have an optional args parameter named migrate. Set Args to {"migrate":["true"])
to migrate the database.
The default setting is {"migrate": ["false"]).
The "rollback" feature Rolls the app back to the previous version.
When we are updating an app, AWS OpsWorks stores the previous versions, maximum of upto five
versions.
We can use this command to roll an app back as many as four versions.
Reference Link:
* http://docsws.amazon.com/opsworks/latest/APIReference/API_DeploymentCommand.html
NEW QUESTION: 7
You currently have the following setup in AWS
1) An Elastic Load Balancer
2) Auto Scaling Group which launches EC2 Instances
3) AMIs with your code pre-installed
You want to deploy the updates of your app to only a certain number of users. You want to have a
cost-effective solution. You should also be able to revert back quickly. Which of the below solutions is
the most feasible one?
A. Create new AM Is with the new app. Then use the new EC2 instances in half proportion to the
older instances.
B. Create a full second stack of instances, cut the DNS over to the new stack of instances, and change
the DNS back if a rollback is needed.
C. Create a second ELB, and a new Auto Scaling Group assigned a new Launch Configuration. Create a
new AMI with the updated app. Use Route53 Weighted Round Robin records to adjust the proportion
of traffic hitting the two ELBs.
D. Redeploy with AWS Elastic Beanstalk and Elastic Beanstalk versions. Use Route 53 Weighted
Round Robin records to adjust the proportion of traffic hitting the two ELBs
Answer: C
Explanation
The Weighted Routing policy of Route53 can be used to direct a proportion of traffic to your
application. The best option is to create a second CLB, attach the new Autoscaling Group and then
use Route53 to divert the traffic.
Option B is wrong because just having EC2 instances running with the new code will not help.
Option C is wrong because Clastic beanstalk is good for development environments, and also there is
no mention of having 2 environments where environment url's can be swapped.
Option D is wrong because you still need Route53 to split the traffic.
For more information on Route53 routing policies, please refer to the below link:
* http://docs.aws.amazon.com/Route53/latest/DeveloperGuide/routing-policy.html
NEW QUESTION: 8
You need to investigate one of the instances which is part of your Autoscaling Group. How
would you implement this.
A. Suspend the AZRebalance process so that Autoscaling will not terminate the instance
B. Put the instance in a standby state
C. Put the instance in a InService state
D. Suspend the AddToLoadBalancer process
Answer: B
Explanation
The AWS Documentation mentions
Auto Scaling enables you to put an instance that is in the InService state into the Standbystate,
update or troubleshoot the instance, and then return the instance to service. Instances that are on
standby are still part of the Auto Scaling group, but they do not actively handle application traffic.
For more information on the standby state please refer to the below link:
* http://docs.aws.amazon.com/autoscaling/latest/userguide/as-enter-exit-standby.html
NEW QUESTION: 9
You are building a mobile app for consumers to post cat pictures online. You will be storing
the images in AWS S3. You want to run the system very cheaply and simply. Which one of these
options allows you to build a photo sharing application with the right authentication/authorization
implementation.
A. Use JWT or SAML compliant systems to build authorization policies. Users log in with a username
and password, and are given a token they can use indefinitely to make calls against the photo
infrastructure.
C Use AWS API Gateway with a constantly rotating API Key to allow access from the client-side.
Construct a custom build of the SDK and include S3 access in it.
B. Create an AWS oAuth Service Domain ad grant public signup and access to the domain. During
setup, add at least one major social media site as a trusted Identity Provider for users.
C. Build the application out using AWS Cognito and web identity federation to allow users to log in
using Facebook or Google Accounts. Once they are logged in, the secret token passed to that user is
used to directly access resources on AWS, like AWS S3. /
Answer: C
Explanation
Amazon Cognito lets you easily add user sign-up and sign-in and manage permissions for your mobile
and web apps. You can create your own user directory within Amazon Cognito. You can also choose
to authenticate users through social identity providers such as Facebook, Twitter, or Amazon; with
SAML identity solutions; or by using your own identity system. In addition, Amazon Cognito enables
you to save data locally on users' devices, allowing your applications to work even when the devices
are offline. You can then synchronize data across users' devices so that their app experience remains
consistent regardless of the device they use.
For more information on AWS Cognito, please visit the below URL:
* http://docs.aws.amazon.com/cognito/latest/developerguide/what-is-amazon-cognito.html
NEW QUESTION: 10
An audit is going to be conducted for your company's AWS account. Which of the following
steps will ensure that the auditor has the right access to the logs of your AWS account
A. Ensure CloudTrail is enabled. Create a user account for the Auditor and attach the
AWSCLoudTrailReadOnlyAccess Policy to the user.
B. Ensure that Cloudtrail is enabled. Create a user for the IT Auditor and ensure that full control is
given to the userfor Cloudtrail.
D- Enable Cloudwatch logs. Create a user for the IT Auditor and ensure that full control is given to the
userfor the Cloudwatch logs.
C. Enable S3 and ELB logs. Send the logs as a zip file to the IT Auditor.
Answer: A
Explanation
The AWS Documentation clearly mentions the below
AWS CloudTrail is an AWS service that helps you enable governance, compliance, and operational
and risk auditing of your AWS account. Actions taken by a user, role, or an AWS service are recorded
as events in CloudTrail. Events include actions taken in the AWS Management Console, AWS
Command Line Interface, and AWS SDKs and APIs.
For more information on Cloudtrail, please visit the below URL:
* http://docs.aws.amazon.com/awscloudtrail/latest/userguide/cloudtrail-user-guide.html
NEW QUESTION: 11
You have an asynchronous processing application usingan Auto Scaling Group and an SQS
Queue. The Auto Scaling Group scales according to the depth of the job queue. The completion
velocity of the jobs has gone down, the Auto Scaling Group size has maxec out, but the inbound job
velocity did not increase. What is a possible issue?
A. The scaling metric is not functioning correctly.
B. Someone changed the 1AM Role Policy on the instances in the worker group and broke
permissions to access the queue.
C. The routing tables changed and none of the workers can process events anymore.
D. Some of the new jobs coming in are malformed and unprocessable.
Answer: D
Explanation
This question is more on the grounds of validating each option
Option B is invalid, because the Route table would have an effect on all worker processes and no jobs
would have been completed.
Option C is invalid because if the 1AM Role was invalid then no jobs would be completed.
Option D is invalid because the scaling is happening, its just that the jobs are not getting completed.
For more information on Scaling on Demand, please visit the below URL:
* http://docs.aws.amazon.com/autoscaling/latest/userguide/as-scale-based-on-demand.html
NEW QUESTION: 12
You have a development team that is continuously spending a lot of time rolling back updates
for an application. They work on changes, and if the change fails, they spend more than 5-6h in
rolling back the update. Which of the below options can help reduce the time for rolling back
application versions.
A. Use OpsWorks and re-deploy using rollback feature.
B. Use Elastic Beanstalk and re-deploy using Application Versions
C. Use S3 to store each version and then re-deploy with Elastic Beanstalk
D. Use CloudFormation and update the stack with the previous template
Answer: B
Explanation
Option B is invalid because Clastic Beanstalk already has the facility to manage various versions and
you don't need to use S3 separately for this.
Option C is invalid because in Cloudformation you will need to maintain the versions. Clastic
Beanstalk can so that automatically for you.
Option D is good for production scenarios and Clastic Beanstalk is great for development scenarios.
AWS beanstalk is the perfect solution for developers to maintain application versions.
With AWS Clastic Beanstalk, you can quickly deploy and manage applications in the AWS Cloud
without worrying about the infrastructure that runs those applications. AWS Clastic Beanstalk
reduces management complexity without restricting choice or control.
You simply upload your application, and AWS Clastic
Beanstalk automatically handles the details of capacity provisioning, load balancing, scaling, and
application health monitoring.
For more information on AWS Beanstalk please refer to the below link:
* https://aws.amazon.com/documentation/elastic-beanstalk/
NEW QUESTION: 13
As part of your deployment process, you are configuring your continuous integration (CI)
system to build AMIs. You want to build them in an automated manner that is also cost-efficient.
Which method should you use?
A. Havethe CI system launch a new spot instance bootstrap the code and apps onto theinstance and
create an AMI out of it.
B. Havethe CI system launch a new instance, bootstrap the code and apps onto theinstance and
create an AMI out of it.
C. Uploadall contents of the image to Amazon S3 launch the base instance, download allof the
contents from Amazon S3 and create the AMI.
D. Attachan Amazon EBS volume to your CI instance, build the root file system of yourimage on the
volume, and use the Createlmage API call to create an AMI out ofthis volume.
Answer: A
Explanation
The AWS documentation mentions the following
If your organization uses Jenkins software in a CI/CD pipeline, you can add Automation as a post-build
step to pre-install application releases into Amazon Machine Images (AMIs). You can also use the
Jenkins scheduling feature to call Automation and create your own operating system (OS) patching
cadence For more information on Automation with Jenkins, please visit the link:
NEW QUESTION: 14
Your company has an on-premise Active Directory setup in place. The company has extended
their footprint on AWS, but still want to have the ability to use their on-premise Active Directory for
authentication. Which of the following AWS services can be used to ensure that AWS resources such
as AWS Workspaces can continue to use the existing credentials stored in the on-premise Active
Directory.
A. Use the ClassicLink feature on AWS
B. Use the Active Directory connector service on AWS
C. Use the Active Directory service on AWS
D. Use the AWS Simple AD service
Answer: B
Explanation
The AWS Documentation mentions the following
AD Connector is a directory gateway with which you can redirect directory requests to your on-
premises Microsoft Active Directory without caching any information in the cloud. AD Connector
comes in two sizes, small and large. A small AD Connector is designed for smaller organizations of up
to 500 users. A large AD Connector can support larger organizations of up to 5,000 users.
For more information on the AD connector, please refer to the below URL:
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/directoryservice/latest/admin-guide/directory_ad_connector.html
NEW QUESTION: 15
Which of the below is not a lifecycle event in Opswork?
A. Uninstall
C Configure
B. Shutdown
C. Setup
Answer: A
Explanation
Below are the Lifecycle events of Opsstack
1) Setup - This event occurs after a started instance has finished booting.
2) Configure - This event occurs on all of the stack's instances when one of the following occurs:
a) An instance enters or leaves the online state.
b) You associate an Clastic IP address with an instance or disassociate one from an instance.
c) You attach an Clastic Load Balancing load balancer to a layer, or detach one from a layer.
3) Deploy - This event occurs when you run a Deploy command, typically to deploy an application to a
set of application server instances.
4) Undeploy - This event occurs when you delete an app or run an Undeploy command to remove an
app from a set of application server instances.
5) Shutdown - This event occurs after you direct AWS Ops Works Stacks to shut an instance down but
before the associated Amazon CC2 instance is actually terminated For more information on Opswork
lifecycle events, please visit the below URL:
* http://docs.aws.amazon.com/opsworks/latest/userguide/workingcookbook-events.html
NEW QUESTION: 16
You are building a Ruby on Rails application for internal, non-production use which uses MySQL
as a database. You want developers without very much AWS experience to be able to deploy new
code with a single command line push. You also want to set this up as simply as possible. Which tool
is ideal for this setup?
A. AWSOpsWorks
B. AWS ELB+ EC2 with CLI Push
C. AWS Elastic Beanstalk
D. AWSCIoudFormation
Answer: C
Explanation
With Elastic Beanstalk, you can quickly deploy and manage applications in the AWS Cloud without
worrying about the infrastructure that runs those applications.
AWS Elastic Beanstalk reduces management complexity without restricting choice or control. You
simply upload your application, and Elastic Beanstalk automatically handles the details of capacity
provisioning, load balancing, scaling, and application health monitoring Elastic Beanstalk supports
applications developed in Java, PHP, .NET, Node.js, Python, and Ruby, as well as different container
types for each language.
For more information on Elastic beanstalk, please visit the below URL:
* http://docs.aws.amazon.com/elasticbeanstalk/latest/dg/Welcome.html
NEW QUESTION: 17
What is the amount of time that Opswork stacks services waits for a response from an
underlying instance before deeming it as a failed instance?
A. 60minutes
B. 5minutes.
C. 20minutes.
D. Iminute.
Answer: B
Explanation
The AWS Documentation mentions
Every instance has an AWS OpsWorks Stacks agent that communicates regularly with the service.
AWS OpsWorks Stacks uses that communication to monitor instance health. If an agent does not
communicate with the service for more than approximately five minutes, AWS OpsWorks Stacks
considers the instance to have failed.
For more information on the Auto healing feature, please visit the below URL:
* http://docs.aws.amazon.com/opsworks/latest/userguide/workinginstances-autohealing.html
NEW QUESTION: 18
Which of the following is not a supported platform on Elastic Beanstalk?
A. Go
B. PackerBuilder
C. Nodejs
D. JavaSE
E. Kubernetes
Answer: E
Explanation
Answer-C
Below is the list of supported platforms
*Packer Builder
*Single Container Docker
*Multicontainer Docker
*Preconfigured Docker
*Go
*Java SE
*Java with Tomcat
*NET on Windows Server with I IS
*Nodejs
*PHP
*Python
*Ruby
For
more information on the supported platforms please refer to the below link
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/elasticbeanstalk/latest/dg/concepts.platforms.html
NEW QUESTION: 19
You have an application hosted in AWS. You wanted to ensure that when certain thresholds
are reached, a Devops Engineer is notified. Choose 3 answers from the options given below
A. Once a CloudWatch alarm is triggered, use SNS to notify the Senior DevOps Engineer.
B. Use CloudWatch Logs agent to send log data from the app to CloudWatch Logs from Amazon EC2
instances
C. Pipe data from EC2 to the application logs using AWS Data Pipeline and CloudWatch
D. Set the threshold your application can tolerate in a CloudWatch Logs group and link a CloudWatch
alarm on that threshold.
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation
You can use Cloud Watch Logs to monitor applications and systems using log data. For example,
CloudWatch Logs can track the number of errors that occur in your application logs and send you a
notification whenever the rate of errors exceeds a threshold you specify.
CloudWatch Logs uses your log data for monitoring; so, no
code changes are required. For example, you can monitor application logs for specific literal terms
(such as
"NullReferenceLxception") or count the number of
occurrences of a literal term at a particular position in log data (such as "404" status codes in an
Apache access log). When the term you are searching for is found, CloudWatch Logs reports the data
to a CloudWatch metric that you specify.
For more information on Cloudwatch Logs please refer to the below link:
* http://docs.ws.amazon.com/AmazonCloudWatch/latest/logs/WhatlsCloudWatchLogs.html
Amazon CloudWatch uses Amazon SNS to send email. First, create and subscribe to an SNS topic.
When you create a CloudWatch alarm, you can add this SNS topic to send an email notification when
the alarm changes state.
For more information on Cloudwatch and SNS please refer to the below link:
* http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonCloudWatch/latest/monitoring/US_SetupSNS.html
NEW QUESTION: 20
Which of the following tools from AWS allows the automatic collection of software inventory
from EC2 instances and helps apply OS patches.
A. EC2Systems Manager
B. AWSCode Deploy
C. EC2AMI's
D. AWSCode Pipeline
Answer: A
Explanation
The Amazon CC2 Systems Manager helps you automatically collect software inventory, apply OS
patches, create system images, and configure Windows and Linux operating systems. These
capabilities enable automated configuration and ongoing management of systems at scale, and help
maintain software compliance for instances running in Amazon L~C2 or on-premises.
One feature within Systems Manager is Automation, which can be used to patch, update agents, or
bake applications into an Amazon Machine Image (AMI). With Automation, you can avoid the time
and effort associated with manual image updates, and instead build AMIs through a streamlined,
repeatable, and auditable process.
For more information on EC2 Systems manager, please refer to the below link:
* https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/aws/streamline-ami-maintenance-and-patching-using-amazon-ec2-
systems-manag
More relating information about exam AWS-DevOps :
https://www.testsimulate.com/AWS-DevOps-study-materials.html
Exam DEA-64T1: Associate - Converged Systems and Hybrid Cloud Version 1.0, exam DEA-64T1 trainin g materials and exam torrent
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NEW QUESTION: 1
What ability can a business obtain when a microservice-oriented architecture to develop
cloud-native application?
A. Quickly collect data for business analytics
B. Implement automate development processes
C. Produces resilient monolithic applications
D. Upgrade application without regression testing
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION: 2
What is the network element manager of Dell EMC Converged infrastructure?
A. Cisco Nexus Operating System
B. Dell EMC Intelligent Operations Software
C. Cisco UCS Manager
D. Dell EMC Unisphare
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION: 3
VxBlock computerservers use storageaccess topology to boot the operation system?
A. NAS
B. FC SAN
C. iSCSI SAN
D. LAN
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 4
What is a component ofDell EMC Hyper-Converged solutions?
A. Unified switching
B. Blade servers
C. Direct-attached storage
D. XtremlO Flash storage
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION: 5
What is a goal of the workforce transportation aspect of Digital Transportation?
A. Develop expertise and skills
B. Redeploy IT staff to create a new infrastructure
C. Modernize end-user mobile technology
D. Free operational resource for strategic planning
Answer: D
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Installing and Configuring Windows 10
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Skills measured
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Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.
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Here are some free demo for reference:
NEW QUESTION: 1
あなたは会社の管理者です。 すべてのデバイスはWindows 10 Enterpriseを実行し、Active
Directoryドメインサービスドメインに参加します。
管理者は、pingがブロックされているため、Windows
10デバイスへのネットワーク接続をテストできません。
デバイスにpingを実行できる必要があります。
解決方法：プライベートプロファイルのICMPv4 Echo Request In
allowルールを作成して有効にします。
解決策は目標を達成していますか？
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A
Explanation
References:
https://www.howtogeek.com/howto/windows-vista/allow-pings-icmp-echo-request-through-
your-windows-vista-
NEW QUESTION: 2
このセクションでは、同じシナリオと問題で1つ以上の質問が表示されます。
それぞれの質問には、問題に対する独自の解決策があります。解決策が指定された目標を満
たしているかどうかを判断する必要があります。
いずれのソリューションでも問題を解決できる可能性があります。
いずれのソリューションも問題を解決できない可能性があります。
このセクションの質問に答えると、そのセクションに戻ることはできません。
その結果、これらの質問はレビュー画面に表示されません。
注：この質問は、同じシナリオを提示する一連の質問の一部です。
シリーズの各質問には、独自の解決策が含まれています。
ソリューションが目標を達成しているかどうかを判断する。
ネットワークにcontoso.comという名前の単一のActive
Directoryドメインが含まれています。
ドメインには、Computer1とComputer2という名前の2台のコンピュータが含まれています
。
User1という名前のユーザーは、Computer1とComputer2のローカルAdministratorsグループ
のメンバです。
User1はComputer1のComputer上のEvent Viewerログにアクセスできません。
ユーザー1は、コンピュータ管理を使用してリモートからコンピュータに接続できます。
User1がComputer1のイベントビューアを使用して、Computer2のイベントビューアログを
リモートで表示できるようにする必要があります。
解決策：Computer2でリモートレジストリサービスを開始します。
これは目標を満たしていますか？
A. いいえ
B. はい
Answer: A
Explanation
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc754820(v=ws.11).aspx
NEW QUESTION: 3
注：この質問は、同じシナリオを使用する一連の質問の一部です。
お客様の便宜のために、各質問ごとにシナリオが繰り返されています。
各質問には異なる目標と回答の選択肢がありますが、シナリオのテキストはこのシリーズの
各質問で全く同じです。
ネットワークには、adatum.comという名前の単一のActive
Directoryドメインが含まれています。
ネットワークには、次の表に示すように5つのサーバーが構成されています：
すべてのサーバーがWindows Server 2012 R2を実行します。
Test_ServerにはShareAという共有フォルダがあります。
ローカルユーザーだけがShareA権限を持ちます。
ネットワークには、Telnetプロトコルを使用して管理されるメインフレームコンピュータが
含まれています。
ドメインには、次の表に示すように構成された4台のクライアントコンピュータが含まれて
います：
すべてのクライアントコンピュータが64ビットバージョンのWindowsを実行します。
ユーザー3は頻繁にShareAにアクセスします。
Computer4でリモートデスクトップが有効になっています。
あなたの会社は以下の要件を特定しています：
* Computer1で未署名のデバイスドライバをテストできることを確認する
* コンピュータ2で資格情報ガードを有効にする。
* computer2でコマンドとコマンドレットをリモートで実行します。
*
管理者に昇格された権限が必要なときに資格情報を要求するように、コンピュータ3のユー
ザーアカウント制御（UAC）を構成します。
* User1がUser3のデスクトップセッションを表示して操作できることを確認します。
* User2がTelnetを使用してメインフレームを管理できることを確認します。
* User4がRemote
Desktopを使用してリモートからComputer4にアクセスできることを確認します。
繰り返されるシナリオの終了。
User4の要件を満たす必要があります。
あなたは何をするべきか？
A. ローカルグループのメンバシップを変更します。
B. ファイアウォールルールの設定を変更します。
C. Universal Windows Platform（UWP）アプリケーションをインストールします。
D. Windows機能をインストールします。
Answer: B
Explanation
https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/17463/windows-7-connect-to-another-computer-
remote-desktop-conne
NEW QUESTION: 4
注：この質問は、一連の回答の選択肢を使用する一連の質問の一部です。
各回答の選択肢は、1回、複数回、またはまったく使用されないことがあります。
次の表に示すように、ストレージが構成されているコンピュータ1という名前のコンピュー
タがあります。
Pool1には、Space1という300 GBのストレージスペースが含まれています。
プール3には、Space2という100 GBのストレージスペースが含まれています。
Pool2は空です。
Space2を2 TBに設定する必要があります。
あなたは何を使うべきですか？
A. Add-PhysicalDisk
B. Set-StoragePool
C. New-VirtualDisk
D. Resize-VirtualDisk
E. Subst Update-Disk
F. Remove-PhysicalDisk
G. Update-Disk
H. Diskpart
Answer: H
NEW QUESTION: 5
注：この質問は一連の質問の一部であり、同じ回答の選択肢を使用しています。
各回答の選択肢は、1回、複数回、またはまったく使用されないことがあります。
仮想ハードディスク（VHD）（Disk1.vhdx）を持つコンピュータ1という名前のコンピュー
タがあります。
Disk1.vhdxからデュアルブート用にComputer1を構成する予定です。
dism.exeを使用してDisk1.vhdxにWindowsをインストールする必要があります。
Windowsをインストールする前に何をしますか？
A. bcdboot.exe
B. bootim.exe
C. Expand-Windows Image
D. diskpart.exe
E. bootcfg.exe
F. Add-Windows Image
G. bcdedit.exe
H. bootsect.exe
Answer: D
Explanation
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-
us/windows/hardware/commercialize/manufacture/desktop/boot-to-vhd--native-b
NEW QUESTION: 6
注：この質問は、同じシナリオを提示する一連の質問の一部です。
シリーズの各質問には、独自の解決策が含まれています。
ソリューションが目標を達成しているかどうかを判断する。
コンピュータでメンテナンスを実行するときは、[インデックスオプション]を開き、[一時停
止]をクリックします。
あなたはコンピュータのメンテナンスを完了します。
インデックス作成を再開する必要があります。
解決方法：[スタート]メニューから[電源]をクリックし、[再起動]をクリックします。
これは目標を満たしていますか？
A. いいえ
B. はい
Answer: B
Explanation
http://www.techbuzz.in/restart-or-resume-windows-indexing-services-after-pausing.php
NEW QUESTION: 7
あなたの会社は、App1という名前のアプリを含むビジネス用のWindow
Storeを使用します。
インターネットにアクセスできない3台のコンピュータがあります。
3台のコンピュータにApp1を配布する必要があります。
目標を達成するには2つの方法がありますか？ それぞれの正解は完全な解を提示します。
A. Microsoft Intuneからの展開
B. Deployment Imaging Servicing and
Managementを使用して配備されたAppXパッケージ(DISM)
C. Windows展開サービス（WDS）からの展開
D. Windowsシステムイメージマネージャを使用して作成された応答ファイル(Windows SIM)
E. Windows ImagingとConfiguration
Designerを使用して作成されたプロビジョニングパッケージ
Answer: B,D
Explanation
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/itpro/windows/deploy/windows-deployment-scenarios-
and-tools
NEW QUESTION: 8
Windows 10 Proを実行するコンピュータがあります。
ハードディスクドライブがすぐに故障するというSMART警告が表示されます。
NEW QUESTION: 9
次の図に示すように、ローカルグループポリシーを持つWindows 10
Enterpriseを実行するコンピュータがあります。
ドロップダウンメニューを使用して、グラフィックに表示された情報に基づいて各ステート
メントを完了するアンサー選択肢を選択します。
注：それぞれの正しい選択は1つの点で価値があります。
Answer:
Explanation
Windows Updates will be downloaded from Windows Server Update Services only. This is
determined by the
"Specify Intranet Microsoft Update Service Location" setting and the "Do not connect to any
Windows Update Internet locations" setting both being 'Enabled'.
In the "Specify Intranet Microsoft Update Service Location" setting, you can specify the name
of the Windows Server Updates Services server.
If a user is logged into the computer and an update requires a restart, the computer will
restart when the user signs out. This is determined by the "No auto-restart with logged on
users for schedule automatic updates" setting being enabled. This group policy setting
creates a registry key named NoAutoRebootWithLoggedOnUsers and sets the value of the
key to 1 (enabled).
With this setting enabled, you should be aware that the computer should be restarted at the
earliest opportunity in order to complete the installation of the Windows Updates.
NEW QUESTION: 10
あなたはWindows 8.1 Proを実行する5台のコンピュータを持っています。
コンピュータ上でWindows 10のアップグレードを実行する必要があります。
どうしますか？
A. 実行してWindows 10のイメージを適用します。
B. Windows 8.1 Proにサインアップしました。Windows
10のインストールソースファイルを含むネットワーク共有からsetup . exeを実行します。
C. Windows
10のソースファイルを含むブート可能なUSBドライブからコンピュータを起動します。
D. Windows PEからコンピュータを起動し、Windows
10のインストールソースファイルを含むネットワーク共有からsetup . exeを実行します。
Answer: B
Explanation
References:
http://www.laptopmag.com/articles/how-to-upgrade-windows-10
https://www.groovypost.com/howto/upgrade-windows-8-1-to-windows-10/
NEW QUESTION: 11
注：この質問は、同じシナリオを提示する一連の質問の一部です。
シリーズの各質問には、独自の解決策が含まれています。
ソリューションが目標を達成しているかどうかを判断する。
ネットワークにcontoso.comという名前の単一のActive
Directoryドメインが含まれています。
ドメインには、Computer1とComputer2という名前の2台のコンピュータが含まれています
。
User1という名前のユーザーは、Computer1とComputer2のローカルAdministratorsグループ
のメンバです。
User1は、Computer1上のDevice
Managerを使用して、Computer上のデバイスをリモート管理することができません。
ユーザー1は、コンピュータ管理を使用してリモートからコンピュータに接続できます。
User1がコンピュータ上のデバイスをリモートから無効にできることを確認する必要があり
ます。
解決方法：コンピュータ2でプラグアンドプレイとリモートレジストリサービスを開始しま
す。
これは目標を満たしていますか？
A. いいえ
B. はい
Answer: A
Explanation
http://winintro.com/?Category=Windows_10_2016&Policy=Microsoft.Policies.DeviceInstallatio
n%3A%3ADeviceManagement_RPCInterface_Allow
NEW QUESTION: 12
目の外付けハードディスクドライブをコンピュータに接続します。
オペレーティングシステムとユーザー文書を交換用のドライブに復元するために使用できる
バックアップを作成する必要があります。
あなたは何を使うべきですか？
A. Start-WBBackup
B. Start-OBBackup
C. vssadmin.exe
D. wbadmin.exe
E. Explanation
http://www.backup-utility.com/windows-10/windows-10-wbadmin-4348.html
2. Windows 10を実行するコンピュータがあります。
App1という名前のアプリケーションは、コンピュータの起動時に起動します。
コンピュータの起動時にApp1が起動しないようにする必要があります。
どのツールを使用しますか？
A. システム構成
B. 高度なシステム設定
C. コンピュータマネジメント
D. タスクマネージャー
Answer: D
Reference :
2019 70-698日本語 Test Simulates & 70-698日本語 Training Materials & 70-698日本語 Key Content
Exam AZ-100: Microsoft Azure Infrastructure and Deployment, exam AZ-100 exam cram and exam dumps
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NEW QUESTION: 1
You have an Azure subscription that contains the resources in the following table.
To which subnets can you apply NSG1?
A. the subnets on VNet1, VNet2, and VNet3
B. the subnets on VNet1 only
C. the subnets on VNet2 only
D. the subnets on VNet2 and VNet3 only
E. the subnets on VNet3 only
Answer: E
Explanation
All Azure resources are created in an Azure region and subscription. A resource can only be created in
a virtual network that exists in the same region and subscription as the resource.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-network-vnet-plan-
design-arm
NEW QUESTION: 2
You create an Azure Storage account named contosostorage.
You plan to create a file share named data.
Users need to map a drive to the data file share from home computers that run Windows 10.
Which port should be open between the home computers and the data file share?
A. 445
B. 443
C. 3389
D. 80
Answer: A
Explanation
Ensure port 445 is open: The SMB protocol requires TCP port 445 to be open; connections will fail if
port 445 is blocked.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/files/storage-how-to-use-files-windows
NEW QUESTION: 3
You need to define a custom domain name for Azure AD to support the planned infrastructure.
Which domain name should you use?
A. Install the Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) role on a domain controller in the Miami
office.
B. Install Azure AD Connect on a server in the Miami office and enable Pass-through Authentication
C. Allow inbound TCP port 8080 to the domain controllers in the Miami office.
D. Join the client computers in the Miami office to Azure AD.
E. Add
http://autologon.microsoftazuread-sso.com to the intranet zone of each client computer in the
Miami office.
Answer: B,E
Explanation
Every Azure AD directory comes with an initial domain name in the form of
domainname.onmicrosoft.com.
The initial domain name cannot be changed or deleted, but you can add your corporate domain
name to Azure AD as well. For example, your organization probably has other domain names used to
do business and users who sign in using your corporate domain name. Adding custom domain names
to Azure AD allows you to assign user names in the directory that are familiar to your users, such as
'alice@contoso.com.' instead of
'alice@domain name.onmicrosoft.com'.
Scenario:
Network Infrastructure: Each office has a local data center that contains all the servers for that office.
Each office has a dedicated connection to the Internet.
Humongous Insurance has a single-domain Active Directory forest named humongousinsurance.com
Planned Azure AD Infrastructure: The on-premises Active Directory domain will be synchronized to
Azure AD.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/fundamentals/add-custom-
domain
NEW QUESTION: 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each
question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question
sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure subscription that contains 10 virtual networks. The virtual networks are hosted in
separate resource groups.
Another administrator plans to create several network security groups (NSGs) in the subscription.
You need to ensure that when an NSG is created, it automatically blocks TCP port 8080 between the
virtual networks.
Solution: You assign a built-in policy definition to the subscription.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION: 5
You have an Azure DNS zone named adatum.com. You need to delegate a subdomain named
research.adatum.com to a different DNS server in Azure. What should you do?
A. Create an NS record named research in the adatum.com zone.
B. Create an PTR record named research in the adatum.com zone.
C. Create an A record named ".research in the adatum.com zone.
D. Modify the SOA record of adatum.com.
Answer: C
Explanation
Configure A records for the domains and sub domains.
References:
http://www.stefanjohansson.org/2012/12/how-to-configure-custom-dns-names-for-multiple-
subdomain-based-az
NEW QUESTION: 6
You have an Azure subscription that contains a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 hosts a line-
of-business application that is available 24 hours a day. VM1 has one network interface and one
managed disk. VM1 uses the D4s v3 size.
You plan to make the following changes to VM1:
* Change the size to D8s v3.
* Add a 500-GB managed disk.
* Add the Puppet Agent extension.
* Attach an additional network interface.
Which change will cause downtime for VM1?
A. Add the Puppet Agent extension.
B. Add a 500-GB managed disk.
C. Change the size to D8s v3.
D. Attach an additional network interface.
Answer: C
Explanation
While resizing the VM it must be in a stopped state.
References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/blog/resize-virtual-machines/
NEW QUESTION: 7
You have an Azure subscription.
You plan to use Azure Resource Manager templates to deploy 50 Azure virtual machines that will be
part of the same availability set.
You need to ensure that as many virtual machines as possible are available if the fabric fails or during
servicing.
How should you configure the template? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer
area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select two alternatives below.
A. platformFaultDomainCount: 3
B. platformFaultDomainCount: 0
C. platformUpdateDomainCount: 50
D. platformFaultDomainCount: 1
E. platformUpdateDomainCount: 10
F. platformUpdateDomainCount: 20
G. platformFaultDomainCount: 2
H. platformUpdateDomainCount: 30
I. platformUpdateDomainCount: 25
J. platformUpdateDomainCount: 40
K. platformFaultDomainCount: 4
Answer: F,G
Explanation
Use two fault domains.
2 or 3 is max, depending on which region you are in.
Use 20 for platformUpdateDomainCount
Increasing the update domain (platformUpdateDomainCount) helps with capacity and availability
planning when the platform reboots nodes. A higher number for the pool (20 is max) means that
fewer of their nodes in any given availability set would be rebooted at once.
References:
https://www.itprotoday.com/microsoft-azure/check-if-azure-region-supports-2-or-3-fault-domains-
managed-disk
https://github.com/Azure/acs-engine/issues/1030
NEW QUESTION: 8
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. Subscription1 contains the resource
groups in the following table.
RG1 has a web app named WebApp1. WebApp1 is located in West Europe.
You move WebApp1 to RG2. What is the effect of the move?
A. The App Service plan to WebApp1 remains to West Europe. Policy2 applies to WebApp1.
B. The App Service plan to WebApp1 moves to North Europe. Policy2 applies to WebApp1.
C. The App Service plan to WebApp1 moves to North Europe. Policy1 applies to WebApp1.
D. The App Service plan to WebApp1 remains to West Europe. Policy1 applies to WebApp1.
Answer: A
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NEW QUESTION: 1
IEEE 802.11r relies on which technology to reduce re-authentication delays when clients
roam between APs?
A. Robust Security Network
B. Temporal Key Integrity
C. Opportunistic Key Caching
D. Fast BSS Transition
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION: 2
An administrator makes a configuration change on a Mobility Master (MM) that causes a
Managed Controller to lose connectivity with the MM. The MC attempts auto roll-back, but this fails.
How should the administrator recover from this problem?
A. Access the CLI of the MC and identify the previous configuration file the MC should use.
B. Access the CLI of the MC and execute the no command to revert the changes.
C. Access the CLI of the MC, execute the disaster-recovery command, and undo the changes.
D. Reboot the MC to force auto-roll back to occur.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 3
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator implements the MultiZone feature. The administrator sets up five zones as shown in
the exhibit.
-Zone A has six controllers that form a cluster.
-Zone B has three controllers that from a cluster.
-Zones C, D, and E have a single standalone controller each.
A total of 13 VAPs are created across the five zones. A zone needs to accept RAP connections form
branch offices. All zones have the same AP Group name. One of the zones will not accept connections
from the MultiZone APs.
Which could be a cause of this problem?
A. The number of VAPs exceeds the maximum limit of 12 VAPs.
B. AP Group names are different for each zone.
C. The number of zones exceeds the maximum limit of four zones.
D. RAPs are used in the configuration.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION: 4
An administrator deploys an Aruba wireless solution comprised of:
-a pair of Mobility Masters (MMs)
-multiple Mobility Controllers (MCs) and virtual Mobility Controllers (VMCs)
-an AirWave server
-a ClearPass server
The Aruba Mobility solution runs ArubaOS 8.X.
Which component in this environment globally defines and deploys VLANs for wireless users?
A. AirWave server
B. Mobility Master
C. Mobility Controller or Virtual Mobility Controller
D. ClearPass server
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 5
An administrator wants to implement a Live Upgrade (in-service upgrade) of a cluster in an
Aruba wireless solution. Which ArubaOS feature does the Mobility Master (MM) use to ensure RF
redundancy, so that when one or more APs are rebooted there is no loss of wireless coverage for
users?
A. Mobility Controller load balancing
B. AP image verification
C. AirMatch
D. AP image preload
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 6
An administrator wants to implement a cluster of Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs). Which
guideline should be followed?
A. Purchase a cluster license to enable clustering
B. Verify that all the controllers run the same release of software.
C. Implement High Availability (HA) AP Fast Failover for redundancy.
D. Implement Virtual Mobility Controllers and Mobility Controllers in the cluster to provide
scalability.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION: 7
An administrator needs to apply a patch to an Aruba environment to implement improvements
for AirMatch.
What is the Aruba recommended approach for this process without a reboot?
A. Upgrade the ArubaOS by the use of Live Upgrades (in-service upgrades).
B. Create controller partitions to minimize downtime.
C. Upgrade the AirMatch Loadable Service Module (LSM) on each Mobility Controller.
D. Upgrade the AirMatch Loadable Service Module (LSM) on the Mobility Master.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION: 8
Which voice deployment mode should an administrator implement on Aruba Mobility
Controllers (MCs) to support all voice applications?
A. SDN-API mode
B. Heuristics mode
C. QoS-mode
D. WMM-only mode
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION: 9
An administrator uses a ClearPass server to perform user authentication and download the
role configuration that should be applied to the user's session. The server is associated to an AAA
profile of a VAP. However, when a user connects to the SSID of the VAP, they are assigned the default
role.
What must the administrator do to ensure that the role is downloaded and used?
A. Enable server derivation in the server group.
B. Enable server derivation in the AAA Server Group.
C. Enable server derivation in the ClearPass' RADIUS configuration.
D. Enable download role for CPPM in the VAP's WLAN profile.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 10
Which Aruba AP mode constantly scans the radio environment to gather IDS and RF
information?
A. Mesh Portal
B. Air Monitor
C. Spectrum AP
D. RAP
Answer: B
Explanation
Reference https://community.arubanetworks.com/t5/Wireless-Access/Air-Monitor-vs-Spectrum-
Monitor/tdp/37966
NEW QUESTION: 11
An administrator sets up a network scan set in AirWave to scan a subnet to identify devices for
a firmware upgrade. The scan completes and AirWave successfully uses the SNMP credentials to
validate SNMP access.
However, SSH access fails and the administrator must manually configure the SSH credentials used
for all of these devices.
What should the administrator have done before running the network scan?
A. Define a scan credentials set for the devices.
B. Manually upgrade the firmware of the devices.
C. Change the default credentials of the devices.
D. Monitor the devices for needed firmware upgrades.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 12
Which protocol communicates RF neighborhood information to an Aruba Mobility Master
(MM) for use by AirMatch?
A. SNMP
B. PAPI
C. AMON
D. GRE
Answer: C
IEEE 802.11r relies on which technology to reduce re-authentication delays when clients
roam between APs?
A. Robust Security Network
B. Temporal Key Integrity
C. Opportunistic Key Caching
D. Fast BSS Transition
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION: 2
An administrator makes a configuration change on a Mobility Master (MM) that causes a
Managed Controller to lose connectivity with the MM. The MC attempts auto roll-back, but this fails.
How should the administrator recover from this problem?
A. Access the CLI of the MC and identify the previous configuration file the MC should use.
B. Access the CLI of the MC and execute the no command to revert the changes.
C. Access the CLI of the MC, execute the disaster-recovery command, and undo the changes.
D. Reboot the MC to force auto-roll back to occur.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 3
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator implements the MultiZone feature. The administrator sets up five zones as shown in
the exhibit.
-Zone A has six controllers that form a cluster.
-Zone B has three controllers that from a cluster.
-Zones C, D, and E have a single standalone controller each.
A total of 13 VAPs are created across the five zones. A zone needs to accept RAP connections form
branch offices. All zones have the same AP Group name. One of the zones will not accept connections
from the MultiZone APs.
Which could be a cause of this problem?
A. The number of VAPs exceeds the maximum limit of 12 VAPs.
B. AP Group names are different for each zone.
C. The number of zones exceeds the maximum limit of four zones.
D. RAPs are used in the configuration.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION: 4
An administrator deploys an Aruba wireless solution comprised of:
-a pair of Mobility Masters (MMs)
-multiple Mobility Controllers (MCs) and virtual Mobility Controllers (VMCs)
-an AirWave server
-a ClearPass server
The Aruba Mobility solution runs ArubaOS 8.X.
Which component in this environment globally defines and deploys VLANs for wireless users?
A. AirWave server
B. Mobility Master
C. Mobility Controller or Virtual Mobility Controller
D. ClearPass server
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 5
An administrator wants to implement a Live Upgrade (in-service upgrade) of a cluster in an
Aruba wireless solution. Which ArubaOS feature does the Mobility Master (MM) use to ensure RF
redundancy, so that when one or more APs are rebooted there is no loss of wireless coverage for
users?
A. Mobility Controller load balancing
B. AP image verification
C. AirMatch
D. AP image preload
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 6
An administrator wants to implement a cluster of Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs). Which
guideline should be followed?
A. Purchase a cluster license to enable clustering
B. Verify that all the controllers run the same release of software.
C. Implement High Availability (HA) AP Fast Failover for redundancy.
D. Implement Virtual Mobility Controllers and Mobility Controllers in the cluster to provide
scalability.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION: 7
An administrator needs to apply a patch to an Aruba environment to implement improvements
for AirMatch.
What is the Aruba recommended approach for this process without a reboot?
A. Upgrade the ArubaOS by the use of Live Upgrades (in-service upgrades).
B. Create controller partitions to minimize downtime.
C. Upgrade the AirMatch Loadable Service Module (LSM) on each Mobility Controller.
D. Upgrade the AirMatch Loadable Service Module (LSM) on the Mobility Master.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION: 8
Which voice deployment mode should an administrator implement on Aruba Mobility
Controllers (MCs) to support all voice applications?
A. SDN-API mode
B. Heuristics mode
C. QoS-mode
D. WMM-only mode
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION: 9
An administrator uses a ClearPass server to perform user authentication and download the
role configuration that should be applied to the user's session. The server is associated to an AAA
profile of a VAP. However, when a user connects to the SSID of the VAP, they are assigned the default
role.
What must the administrator do to ensure that the role is downloaded and used?
A. Enable server derivation in the server group.
B. Enable server derivation in the AAA Server Group.
C. Enable server derivation in the ClearPass' RADIUS configuration.
D. Enable download role for CPPM in the VAP's WLAN profile.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 10
Which Aruba AP mode constantly scans the radio environment to gather IDS and RF
information?
A. Mesh Portal
B. Air Monitor
C. Spectrum AP
D. RAP
Answer: B
Explanation
Reference https://community.arubanetworks.com/t5/Wireless-Access/Air-Monitor-vs-Spectrum-
Monitor/tdp/37966
NEW QUESTION: 11
An administrator sets up a network scan set in AirWave to scan a subnet to identify devices for
a firmware upgrade. The scan completes and AirWave successfully uses the SNMP credentials to
validate SNMP access.
However, SSH access fails and the administrator must manually configure the SSH credentials used
for all of these devices.
What should the administrator have done before running the network scan?
A. Define a scan credentials set for the devices.
B. Manually upgrade the firmware of the devices.
C. Change the default credentials of the devices.
D. Monitor the devices for needed firmware upgrades.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 12
Which protocol communicates RF neighborhood information to an Aruba Mobility Master
(MM) for use by AirMatch?
A. SNMP
B. PAPI
C. AMON
D. GRE
Answer: C
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